Is it necessary to file a eviction when the home owner and yourself never had a lease to rent out the home?

The home owner was to resign the house back to the REAL home buyer after 2 years. Home owner will not resign and moved out. Left the buyer with all the payments and now is planning to move out.

By | 2013-08-25T11:19:32+00:00 August 25th, 2013|Mortgages Home Loans Interest Rate|3 Comments

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3 Comments

  1. Landlord August 25, 2013 at 12:49 PM - Reply

    Honeslty, I am not really getting what you want.

    The home owner has to file an eviciton to either forably remove someone from their property, or to garnish wages from someone who rented (no lease is required) from them and owes them money. There are no other reasons to file an eviction. There are also no other ways to either forablyl remove or garnish wages.

  2. the kid August 25, 2013 at 12:26 PM - Reply

    This makes no sense. In the case of a purchase agreement, you don’t evict, you foreclose.

    What exactly you are asking is very hard to understand. If party A (“REAL home buyer”) originally owned the home and gave away ownership to Party B (home owner) and then Party B did not give ownership back per an agreement, that agreemen better be iron clad to the nth degree and provable. B/c if not, then you gave away a house.

  3. real estate guy August 25, 2013 at 11:42 AM - Reply

    Your question makes no sense. What does resign mean?

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